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1. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed to interconnect different Internet service providers?BGP*EIGRPOSPFRIP
BGP is a protocol developed to interconnect different levels of ISPs as well as ISPs and some of their larger private clients.
2. Which routing protocol is limited to smaller network implementations because it does not accommodate growth for larger networks?OSPFRIP*EIGRPIS-IS
The RIP protocol was created with a metric that does not support larger networks. Other routing protocols, including OSPF, EIGRP, and IS-IS, scale well and accommodate growth and larger networks.
3. What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.)discover hostsupdate and maintain routing tables*propagate host default gatewaysnetwork discovery*assign IP addressing
4. When would it be more beneficial to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of static routing?in an organization with a smaller network that is not expected to grow in sizeon a stub network that has a single exit pointin an organization where routers suffer from performance issueson a network where there is a lot of topology changes*
Dynamic routing protocols consume more router resources, are suitable for larger networks, and are more useful on networks that are growing and changing.
5. When would it be more beneficial to use static routing instead of dynamic routing protocols?on a network where dynamic updates would pose a security risk*on a network that is expected to continually grow in sizeon a network that has a large amount of redundant pathson a network that commonly experiences link failures
Dynamic routing protocols are viewed as less secure than static routing because they commonly forward routing information on the same links that data traffic is crossing.
6. What is a purpose of the network command when configuring RIPv2 as the routing protocol?It identifies the interfaces that belong to a specified network.*It specifies the remote network that can now be reached.It immediately advertises the specified network to neighbor routers with a classful mask.It populates the routing table with the network entry.
The network command is used to advertise the directly connected networks of a router. It enables RIP on the interfaces that belong to the specified network.
7. A network administrator configures a static route on the edge router of a network to assign a gateway of last resort. How would a network administrator configure the edge router to automatically share this route within RIP?Use the auto-summary command.Use the passive-interface command.Use the network command.Use the default-information originate command.*
The default-information originate command instructs a router to propagate the static default route in RIP or OSPF.
8. What is the purpose of the passive-interface command?allows a routing protocol to forward updates out an interface that is missing its IP addressallows a router to send routing updates on an interface but not receive updates via that interfaceallows an interface to remain up without receiving keepalivesallows interfaces to share IP addressesallows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface*
9. Which route would be automatically created when a router interface is activated and configured with an IP address?D 10.16.0.0/24 <90/3256> via 192.168.6.9C 192.168.0.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet 0/0*S 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet 0/1O 172.16.0.0/16 <110/65> via 192.168.5.1
Directly connected networks are identified with a C and are automatically created whenever an interface is configured with an IP address and activated.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two types of routes could be used to describe the 192.168.200.0/30 route? (Choose two.)
A level 2 child route is a route that has a network with a mask that is greater than the classful equivalent. An ultimate route is a route that uses a next-hop IP address or exit interface to forward traffic.
11. What occurs next in the router lookup process after a router identifies a destination IP address and locates a matching level 1 parent route?The level 2 child routes are examined.*The level 1 supernet routes are examined.The level 1 ultimate routes are examined.The router drops the packet.
When a router locates a parent route that matches the destination IP address of a packet, the router will then examine the level 2 child routes contained within it.
12. Which route would be used to forward a packet with a source IP address of 192.168.10.1 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1?C 192.168.10.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1S 10.1.0.0/16 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0O 10.1.1.0/24 <110/65> via 192.168.200.2, 00:01:20, Serial0/1/0*S* 0.0.0.0/0 <1/0> via 172.16.1.1
Even though OSPF has a higher administrative distance value (less trustworthy), the best match is the route in the routing table that has the most number of far left matching bits.
13. Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as an ultimate route in a router’s routing table? (Choose two.)contain subnetsbe a default routecontain an exit interface*be a classful network entrycontain a next-hop IP address*
An ultimate route is a routing table entry that contains either a next-hop IP address (another path) or an exit interface, or both. This means that directly connected and link-local routes are ultimate routes. A default route is a level 1 ultimate route, but not all ultimate routes are default routes. Routing table entries that are subnetted are level 1 parent routes but do not meet either of the two requirements to be ultimate routes. Ultimate routes do not have to be classful network entries.
14. What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols?They are only suitable for simple topologies.Their configuration complexity increases as the size of the network grows.They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by default.*They require administrator intervention when the pathway of traffic changes.
By default, dynamic routing protocols forward messages across a network without authenticating the receiver or originator of traffic. Static routes increase in configuration complexity as the network grows larger and are more suitable for smaller networks. Static routes also require manual intervention when a network topology changes or links become disabled.
15. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)sends subnet mask information in routing updates*sends complete routing table update to all neighborsis supported by RIP version 1allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology*reduces the amount of address space available in an organization
16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output from the show ip route command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The router learned, via RIP, that 172.16.0.0 is variably subnetted, and that there are two subnet and mask entries for that network. This means that RIP version 2 is running on both routers and that the command no auto-summary has been applied on the neighbor router. RIPv2 has an administrative distance of 120 and this router will advertise all connected networks to the neighbor via 192.168.1.1.
17. While configuring RIPv2 on an enterprise network, an engineer enters the command network 192.168.10.0 into router configuration mode. What is the result of entering this command?The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending version 1 and version 2 updates.The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is receiving version 1 and version 2 updates.The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending only version 2 updates.*The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending RIP hello messages.
The command being entered by the engineer will cause RIPv2 to activate on the interface for the 192.168.10.0 network. If RIPv1 is configured, the router will send only version 1 updates, but will listen for both version 1 and version 2 updates. If RIPv2 is configured, the router will send and listen to only version 2 updates.
18. A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind of route entry is this?a static routea route used as the default gatewaya network directly connected to a router interfacea route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol*
Routes in a routing table are manually created or dynamically learned. Letter D indicates that the route was learned dynamically through the EIGRP routing protocol.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?
The destination IP address 172.16.0.66 belongs to the network 172.16.0.64/26. In the routing table there is a route learned by EIGRP (identified with code “D”) with 192.168.1.6 as the next-hop address and Serial 0/0/1 as the exiting interface.
20. Which type of route will require a router to perform a recursive lookup?an ultimate route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is not using CEF*a level 2 child route that is using an exit interface on a router that is not using CEFa level 1 network route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is using CEFa parent route on a router that is using CEF
When Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) is not being used on a router, a recursive lookup must be performed when a route using a next-hop IP address is selected as the best pathway to forward data.
21. Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2?S 10.0.0.0/8 <1/0> via 192.168.0.2S 10.16.0.0/24 <1/0> via 192.168.0.9*S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0
Before the administrative distance of a route is compared, the route with the most specific best match is utilized. The 192.168.14.0/26 network contains the best match to the destination IP address of 192.168.14.20 and thus the 192.168.14.0/26 RIP route is utilized over the EIGRP and OSFP routes, regardless of administrative distance.
22. A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic?a 192.168.14.0/26 route that is learned via RIP*a 192.168.14.0/24 route that is learned via EIGRPa 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via OSPFa 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via RIP
23. What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries?IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not.By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes.*The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4 route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix.IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4.
Routers running IOS release 15 have link local routing table entries for both IPv4 and IPv6. The selection of both IPv6 routes and IPv4 routes is based on the longest matching prefix. The routing tables of both IPv6 and IPv4 use directly connected interfaces, static routes, and dynamically learned routes.
24. Match the dynamic routing protocol component to the characteristic. (Not all options are used.)data structurestables or databases that are stored in RAM*routing protocol messagesexchanges routing information and maintains accurate information about networks*algorithma finite list of steps used to determine the best path*
The three components of dynamic routing protocols include:Data structuresRouting protocol messagesAlgorithm
25. Match the characteristic to the corresponding type of routing. (Not all options are used.)
Both static and dynamic routing could be used when more than one router is involved. Dynamic routing is when a routing protocol is used. Static routing is when every remote route is entered manually by an administrator into every router in the network topology.
26. Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.*A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN. *An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.*Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.
27. Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?datadefaultnative*management
28. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)security*a reduction in the number of trunk linkscost reduction *end user satisfactionimproved IT staff efficiency*no required configuration
29. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?
30. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?show vlan briefshow interfaces Fa0/1 switchport*show mac address-table interface Fa0/1show interfaces trunk
31. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.*Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.
32. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.*Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.
33. Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.)CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs.VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094. *They are saved in the running-config file by default.*VLANs are initialized from flash memory.They are commonly used in small networks.
34. What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?The ports are disabled.The ports are placed in trunk mode.The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.*
35. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.*It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.
36. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.*Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
37. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunkS1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate*S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirableS1(config-if)# switchport mode accessS1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none
38. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch*when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic autowhen a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirableon links that should not be trunking*on links that should dynamically attempt trunking
39. In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take advantage of?an open Telnet connectionautomatic encapsulation negotiationforwarding of broadcaststhe default automatic trunking configuration*
40. Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.*Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular users.Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk mode.
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Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.*Use SSH for all remote management access.